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A user is able to set up a master payer account to view consolidated billing reports through:


A) AWS Budgets.
B) Amazon Macie.
C) Amazon QuickSight.
D) AWS Organizations.

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Which of the following will enhance the security of access to the AWS Management Console? (Choose two.)


A) AWS Secrets Manager
B) AWS Certificate Manager
C) AWS Multi-Factor Authentication (AWS MFA)
D) Security groups
E) Password policies

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Which mechanism allows developers to access AWS services from application code?


A) AWS Software Development Kit
B) AWS Management Console
C) AWS CodePipeline
D) AWS Config

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Which statement best describes Elastic Load Balancing?


A) It translates a domain name into an IP address using DNS.
B) It distributes incoming application traffic across one or more Amazon EC2 instances.
C) It collects metrics on connected Amazon EC2 instances.
D) It automatically adjusts the number of Amazon EC2 instances to support incoming traffic.

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A customer runs an On-Demand Amazon Linux EC2 instance for 3 hours, 5 minutes, and 6 seconds. For how much time will the customer be billed?


A) 3 hours, 5 minutes
B) 3 hours, 5 minutes, and 6 seconds
C) 3 hours, 6 minutes
D) 4 hours

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A company has an AWS-hosted website located behind an Application Load Balancer. The company wants to safeguard the website from SQL injection or cross-site scripting. Which AWS service should the company use?


A) Amazon GuardDuty
B) AWS WAF
C) AWS Trusted Advisor
D) Amazon Inspector

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Which element of the AWS global infrastructure consists of one or more discrete data centers, each with redundant power, networking, and connectivity, which are housed in separate facilities?


A) AWS Regions
B) Availability Zones
C) Edge locations
D) Amazon CloudFront

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Which of the following benefits does the AWS Compliance program provide to AWS customers? (Choose two.)


A) It verifies that hosted workloads are automatically compliant with the controls of supported compliance frameworks.
B) AWS is responsible for the maintenance of common compliance framework documentation.
C) It assures customers that AWS is maintaining physical security and data protection.
D) It ensures the use of compliance frameworks that are being used by other cloud providers.
E) It will adopt new compliance frameworks as they become relevant to customer workloads.

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A company wants to migrate a small website and database quickly from on-premises infrastructure to the AWS Cloud. The company has limited operational knowledge to perform the migration. Which AWS service supports this use case?


A) Amazon EC2
B) Amazon Lightsail
C) Amazon S3
D) AWS Lambda

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Which feature of the AWS Cloud will support an international company's requirement for low latency to all of its customers?


A) Fault tolerance
B) Global reach
C) Pay-as-you-go pricing
D) High availability

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Who is responsible for patching the guest operating system for Amazon RDS?


A) The AWS Product team
B) The customer Database Administrator
C) Managed partners
D) AWS Support

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Which AWS service can be used to decouple applications?


A) AWS Config
B) Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)
C) AWS Batch
D) Amazon Simple Email Service (Amazon SES)

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A company has deployed several relational databases on Amazon EC2 instances. Every month, the database software vendor releases new security patches that need to be applied to the databases. What is the MOST efficient way to apply the security patches?


A) Connect to each database instance on a monthly basis, and download and apply the necessary security patches from the vendor.
B) Enable automatic patching for the instances using the Amazon RDS console.
C) In AWS Config, configure a rule for the instances and the required patch level.
D) Use AWS Systems Manager to automate database patching according to a schedule.

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An Amazon EC2 instance runs only when needed yet must remain active for the duration of the process. What is the most appropriate purchasing option?


A) Dedicated Instances
B) Spot Instances
C) On-Demand Instances
D) Reserved Instances

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A company wants to transfer petabytes of data as quickly as possible from on-premises locations to the AWS Cloud. Which AWS service should the company use?


A) AWS Snowball
B) AWS Global Accelerator
C) Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration
D) Amazon Connect

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How can a user achieve high availability for a web application hosted on AWS?


A) Use a Classic Load Balancer across multiple AWS Regions.
B) Use an Application Load Balancer across multiple Availability Zones in one AWS Region.
C) Set up automatic scaling and load balancing with another application instance running on premises.
D) Use the AWS Region with the highest number of Availability Zones.

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What are the benefits of developing and running a new application in the AWS Cloud compared to on-premises? (Choose two.)


A) AWS automatically distributes the data globally for higher durability.
B) AWS will take care of operating the application.
C) AWS makes it easy to architect for high availability.
D) AWS can easily accommodate application demand changes.
E) AWS takes care application security patching.

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What function do security groups serve related to Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance security?


A) Act as a virtual firewall for the Amazon EC2 instance.
B) Secure AWS user accounts with AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies.
C) Provide DDoS protection with AWS Shield.
D) Use Amazon CloudFront to protect the Amazon EC2 instance.

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A company is hosting a web application in a Docker container on Amazon EC2. AWS is responsible for which of the following tasks?


A) Scaling the web application and services developed with Docker
B) Provisioning or scheduling containers to run on clusters and maintain their availability
C) Performing hardware maintenance in the AWS facilities that run the AWS Cloud
D) Managing the guest operating system, including updates and security patches

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Which of the following deployment models enables customers to fully trade their capital IT expenses for operational expenses?


A) On-premises
B) Hybrid
C) Cloud
D) Platform as a service

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